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I understand where IP2 is coming from... but I think you have to consider the situation a bit more.
If a business sponsors a complete stranger, it will almost without a doubt, be for business purposes. Whereas sponsoring a shareholder/director certainly raises doubts as to whether or not it's for business purposes (as is the case here!).
If it can be shown as wholely for the purpose of the business - it is allowed. How might tax be otherwise?
David Toohey
The Accountants Circle
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